Are additional syntactic constraints only normative when the cannot be feasibly expressed in the schema language Who judges this The use of the word "whenever" is ambiguous. Is this a condition under which such statements are normative or an explanation of why such statements exist

What may be meant is that the additional syntactic constraints are normative, period. Clarify this sentence, perhaps by omitting the editorial explanation about why such additional constraints are not in the schema.

line 14 Part 1, Section 2.3 "What this Standard Specifies"

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Proposed Disposition of DIS 29500 Comment US-0254 (Modified: 2008-01-04) Agreed; additional syntactic constraints are normative. We propose the following clarifying change to Part 1, §2.3: Additional syntax constraints in written form , wherever these constraints cannot feasibly be expressed 15 in the schema language . [Note: These constraints are described in written form because they could not feasibly be expressed in the schema language.] Similar Comments: DE-0121 , GB-0023 , KE-0010 , PT-0017 ,